Question of the Week # 425

May 7, 2012 7:27 pmLeave a Comment
Archer USMLE Step 3

425) A 80 day old african american woman with advanced dementia is admitted to the intensive care unit for overwhelming sepsis secondary to a urinary tract infection. At presentation she was hypoxemic and was subsequently, intubated and placed on a ventilator. Blood and urine cultures are obtained and she is started on antibiotics A chest x-ray post-intubation shows endotracheal tube in place and bilateral diffuse alveolar infiltrates. On examination, her pulse is 110/min, Blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg and respiratory rate is 18/min with the patient on Assist-Control mode on the ventilator. Pulse oximetry reveals 88% on Fio2 90%. Chest examination reveals diffuse crackles. Cardiac examination reveals tachycardia, there is no S3 gallop. Brain natriuretic peptide level is 50 pg/ml . A 2D echocardiogram shows normal left ventricular function with an ejection fraction of 60%. His ventilator settings are as follows : Assist-Control mode; Fio2 ( Fraction of inspired oxygen) : 90%, Respiratory rate : 18/minute, Tidal Volume : 500 ml, PEEP ( Positive End expiatory Pressure) : 5 cm H20 . Arterial blood gas analysis reveals ( on Fio2 70%): pH : 7.36, pCo2 : 45 mmHg, pO2 : 55 mm Hg, Bicarbonate : 23 Meq/L

Which of the following is indicated at this time?

A) Intravenous Furosemide

B) Swan-Ganz Catheter Placement

C) Increase PEEP by 3 cm H20

D) Increase Tidal Volume to 650 ml

E) Increase Fio2 to 100%

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Question of the Week # 424

May 7, 2012 7:01 pm7 Comments
Archer USMLE Step 3

424) A 3 day old male infant is evaluated for a rash that developed previous night and has been progressing. The rash first started on his face as flat red patches but now it has become bumpy and some of them have pus in it. The baby is breast feeding and there is no history of fever. The mother is healthy and none of the family members are sick at home. The baby was born by an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. On examination, he is afebrile. There are numerous small flat red patches along with yellowish-white papules and numerous pustules all over his trunk and extremities. The lesions on his face seem to be resolving. Palms and soles are not involved. A Wright-stained smear of pustular fluid shows numerous eosinophils and occasional neutrophils. A picture of the rash is shown below:

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Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Miliaria

B) Eosinophilic Pustular Folliculitis

C) Erythema Toxicum

D) Milia

E) Staphylococcal Pyoderma

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Question of the Week # 424

May 7, 2012 6:14 pm9 Comments
Archer USMLE Step 3

424)  A 30 year old man presents to the emergency room with complaints of  right lower extremity swelling and pain over the past two days. He has had recurrent diarrhea with loose, watery bowel movements for several weeks without any blood in it. He also reports developing a red, scaly rash around his nose, mouth , genital area and on the buttocks.  He has itching and pain in the areas affected by the rash. He denies any fever or night sweats or weightloss.  He does not drink alcohol. He is sexually active with his girl friend and always uses condoms. On examination, his vitals are stable. Cardiac and respiratory examination is normal. There is  angular cheilitis.  Laboratory investigations reveals a normocytic, normochromic anemia. Stool analysis does not show any leucocytes or blood and is negative for ova and parasites. Venous doppler reveals right lower extremity deep vein thrombosis extending up to common femoral vein. Skin examination shows findings as below:

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In addition to starting anticoagulation, which of the following should be performed next?

A) Serum Zinc Level

B) CT scan of the abdomen

C) Protein C and S levels

D) Serum Glucagon Levels

E) Factor V leiden mutation

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Question of the Week # 423

May 7, 2012 5:55 pm14 Comments
Archer USMLE Step 3

423) A 14 month old male baby is brought to your office by his concerned mother for recurrent diarrhea over the past 2 months. He also developed a scaly rash around his mouth, on the cheeks and on buttocks. He has been exclusively breast-fed for about 8 months and has been started on gradual weaning process over the last four months. He is otherwise, a healthy child. There is no family history of eczema. On examination, he is afebrile and vitals are stable. Physical examination shows lesions around the ano-genital area as shown below :

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Similar lesions are seen over his cheeks and around the mouth. Which of the following is indicated in this patient at this time?

A) Exclusive Breastfeeding

B) Serum Lead level

C) Serum Zinc level

D) Glucoagon level

E) Sweat Chloride Level

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Question of the Week # 422

May 6, 2012 2:08 am15 Comments
Archer USMLE Step 3

422) A 54-year-old man with history of Diabetes Mellitus and End-Stage Renal Disease is evaluated in your office during a follow up visit after undergoing hemo-dialysis in the morning. He has been dependent on Hemo-Dialysis  for past four years and undergoes dialysis thrice a week. He reports recurrent epigastric abdominal pain that is burning in quality which is relieved by taking over the counter antacids. He denies any pain at this time. He denies any nausea or vomiting. He has no history of alcohol use or smoking. On examination, he is afebrile and vitals are stable. Abdominal examination is benign. Laboratory investigations are as follows:

WBC  8.0K/µL

Hemoglobin 10.5gm%

Serum amylase 200 IU/L ( N =  25 to 160 U/L)

Serum Lipase 150 IU/L (Normal = 25 to 80U/L)

AST  30 IU/L

ALT 40 IU/L

Total bilirubin 0.6gm%

Alkaline Phosphatase 80IU/L .

Which of the following is indicated in this patient at this time?

A) Ultrasound of the Gall Bladder

B) Nothing by mouth and IV hydration

C) No further investigations or treatment

D) Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangio Pancreatography

E) CT scan of the Abdomen

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Question of the Week # 421

May 6, 2012 12:52 am7 Comments
Archer USMLE Step 3

421) A 34-year-old woman with history of oligomenorrhea presents to your clinic to discuss her results of recent work-up. One week ago, she has undergone extensive work-up for her menstrual abnormality. A serum pregnancy test is negative. Thyroid stimulating hormone, serum prolactin  level and Follicle Stimulating Hormone levels are within normal limits. Serum total testosterone is 120ng/dl ( N = 30 to 90ng/dl) and serum free testosterone is 0.9 ng/dl ( N= 0.4 to 0.8 ng/dl) . A dehydro-epiandrosterone level is 400 mcg/dl (45- 270 ug/dL) . A pelvic ultrasound reveals multiple cysts in the ovaries bilaterally. On examination, she is obese with a BMI of 32. She has excess thick and pigmented hair above her upper lip and on the chin. Which of the following is indicated in this patient at this time?

A) Fasting Plasma Glucose

B) Random Blood Glucose

C) Hemoglobin A1C

D) Oral Glucose Tolerance Test

E) Start Metformin

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Question of the Week # 420

May 6, 2012 12:24 am7 Comments
Archer USMLE Step 3

420) A 34-year-old woman with past medical history of Hypothyroidism presents to the outpatient clinic for follow-up visit. She delivered a health male baby about one week ago and has been breast feeding without any issues. She has no complaints. During the pregnancy she required increase of her levothyroxine dose to 0.175 mcg from  her usual pre-pregnancy dose of 0.125mcg. Her TSH level about 2 weeks ago was 2.0µu/ml. She denies any cold or heat intolerance, weakness or constipation. On physical examination, vitals are stable. There is no goiter. Deep tendon reflexes are normal.  Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time?

A) Decrease Levothyroxine to pre-pregnancy dose and recheck TSH in 6 weeks

B) Repeat TSH in 6 weeks before dose adjustment

C) Increase Levothyroxine and repeat TSH in 6 weeks

D) Repeat TSH now

E) Obatin Thyroid Peroxidase antibodies

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Question of the Week # 419

May 5, 2012 10:52 pm7 Comments
Archer USMLE Step 3

419) A 26-year-old woman presents for an ante-natal check up after her home pregnancy test showed positive result. Her last menstrual period was 5 weeks ago. Her past medical history includes hypothyroidism for which she has been using 125 mcg of levo-thyroxine for the past five years. She did not require any dose adjustment of her thyroid hormone therapy in the past 4 years. Her most recent thyroid stimulating hormone level ( TSH) was performed 2 weeks ago and was 2.5µU/ml ( N = 0.5 to 5.0 µU/ml). She denies any cold intolerance, weakness or constipation. She has gained about 2 lbs weight in the past one month. On physical examination, vitals are stable. There is no goiter. Reflexes are 1+ in bilateral lower extremities and there is 1+ pre-tibial edema. Laboratory investigations reveal :

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone :  2.5 µU/ml( N = 0.5 to 5.0 µU/ml)

Serum Total T4: 13.9 µg/dl ( N = 5 to 12µg/dl)

Serum Free T4 :  1.9 ng/dl ( N = 0.9 to 2.4ng/dl)

Which of the following is the most recommendation?

A) Decrease Levothyroxine and recheck TSH in 4 weeks

B) Continue same dose Levothyroxine and repeat TSH in 4 weeks

C) Increase Levothyroxine and repeat TSH in 4 weeks

D) Repeat TSH in 8 to 10 weeks

E) Check Serum thyroid binding globulin levels

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Question of the Week # 418

May 2, 2012 7:25 am19 Comments
Archer USMLE Step 3

418) A 76-year-old woman with history of stage III melanoma of the right lower extremity underwent a lymph node dissection about one year ago. Her other history includes Diabetes and hypertension. She presents with complaints of increasing pain in her right lower extremity for the past 2 months. The pain appears upon standing or walking down the stairs for past few weeks. Her pain gets better upon walking uphill and when she sits down to rest. There is no history of limb swelling. On examination, vitals are stable. Pulses are palpable but slightly diminished in lower extremities. Reminder of physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis ?

A) Peripheral Artery Disease

B) Chronic Venous Insufficiency

C) Lymphedema

D) Deep Vein Thrombosis

E) Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

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Question of the Week # 417

May 2, 2012 7:20 am10 Comments
Archer USMLE Step 3

417) A 72-year-old woman with history of stage III melanoma of the right lower extremity underwent a lymph node dissection about one year ago. Her other history includes Diabetes and hypertension. She presents with complaints of increasing pain in her right lower extremity upon walking a block for past few weeks. The pain gets better with rest. There is no history of limb swelling. On examination, vitals are stable. Physical examination is unremarkable with out any swelling or tenderness in her extremities.

Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

a) Peripheral artery disease

b) Chronic Venous insufficiency

C) Lymphedema

d) Deep Vein Thrombosis

e) Phlegmasia Alba Dolens

Which of the following is indicated next?

A) Venous Doppler

B) Compression Stockings

C) Clopidogrel

D) Check blood pressure at ankle and elbow levels

E) Leg elevation

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