Question of the Week # 35

A 32 year old man present to your office with complaints of a lesio on his penis that developed 3 days ago. He denies any fever or chills or pain. On further questioning, he reports an unprotected sexual intercourse with a stranger that he met in a night club 2 weeks ago.  Physical examination reveals a normal vitals and no lymhadenopathy. The genitilia examination reveals the following findings as depicted in the picture

Archer USMLE Step 3

Most appropriate next Step in confirming the Diagnosis :

A. VDRL

B. RPR

C. FTABS

D. Cultures

E. Dark field microscopy of the scraping

13 Thoughts on “Question of the Week # 35

  1. krishna on August 3, 2010 at 5:55 am said:

    e

  2. Manoj Dobariya on August 23, 2010 at 3:21 am said:

    E. Dark field microscopy of the scraping……. Primary syphilis

  3. Manuel on July 1, 2011 at 1:15 am said:

    E

  4. e primary syphilis.

  5. Nicole on November 7, 2011 at 5:48 am said:

    C. confirmation for any positive or equivocal nontreponemal test result should follow with a treponemal test, such as the fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorption (FTA-ABS)

  6. the correct answer is E.

  7. john on May 17, 2012 at 9:18 pm said:

    E- primary syphylis presents with painless chancre. Secondary will have a rash on the palm and sole. Dark field examination will show the organism.Treat with penicillin.

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